What consolidates pay, personnel, and Navy-sponsored passenger transportation functions into a central location, which provides all of these services?
Pay/Personnel Administrative Support System (PASS)
2. What provides advice to and performs assistance visits at Personnel Support Activity Detachments (PERSUPPACTDETs) responsible for providing Reserve personnel administration support services?
Reserve Personnel Management Assistance Team (RPMAT)
3. Use the procedures and guidance in what reference for the administration of military pay, personnel, and Navy
4. In general, the command will make decisions concerning personnel actions, and what will accomplish the paperwork portion of the action?
1. The Personnel Support Activity Detachment (PERSUPPACTDET) and Customer Service Desk (CSD) relationship is established under what reference?
2. What maintains pay records for PIM not in a drill status?
Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS)
3. What is responsible for assignment of pay and personnel responsibilities?
1. What serves as the critical link between an individual Sailor, his or her command, and the supporting personnel support organization?
2. The responsibility of what program is to provide Sailors and commands with personnel, pay, passenger transportation, educational services, and other related support?
3. The CPC shall be a PS3, YN3, or what or higher?
4. CPCs shall promptly transmit documents (at least how often) to ensure compliance with the timeliness policy established by MILPERSMAN 1000-025?
Department of Defense (DoD) policy is to achieve what percent timeliness rate for associated pay transactions?
2. To be consistent with DoD pay policy, Navy policy is to achieve a 97 percent timeliness rate for all personnel transactions within how many working days of the effective date of the transaction?
3. Commander, Navy Personnel Command (COMNAVPERSCOM) will monitor and report status of personnel and pay timeliness and accuracy to what?
What is the actual or adjusted date from which the amount of active military service performed is calculated?
The Board for Corrections of Naval Records (BCNR) was established per what reference to provide a method for correction of error or removal of injustice from naval records without the necessity for private legislation?
2. Applications for review to the BCNR may be submitted, per what instruction only after having exhausted all available administrative remedies afforded by law, unless waived by BCNR?
3. BCNR applications must be submitted within how many years after the claimant discovers the error or injustice?
4. If the BCNR application petition is to be considered and resolved prior to the convening of a selection board, the petition should be received by BCNR at least how long before the selection board convenes?
5. BCNR applications must be submitted on what form (Rev. 5-05), Application for Correction of Military Record Under the Provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1552?
1. Each member serving in the Navy on active duty shall be entitled to accrue leave at the rate of how many calendar days for each month of active duty?
2. Each member serving in the Navy on active duty shall be entitled to accrue leave for each month of active duty except active duty of less than how many consecutive days?
3. Each member serving in the Navy on active duty shall be entitled to accrue leave for each month of active duty except active duty for training with pay of less than how many consecutive days?
What shall not be granted for the purpose of extending leave?
2. Per what, Leave and Special Liberty shall not be combined?
3. What, Part 1, Chapter 3, details specific leave accounting procedures?
1. Personnel records are designated what?
2. Information shall be divulged from official personnel records only under SECNAVINST 5211.5D and what else?
3. The personnel records are the property of the what?
1. The Officer permanent personnel record is maintained by Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM) in what?
Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)
2. Documents that reflect an officer's character, professional qualifications, fitness for service, performance of duties, entitlements, and affect or influence a member's career and benefits, will be filed in the Officer permanent personnel record in accordance with what instruction?
5. Administrative or clerical errors in the officer permanent personnel record may be corrected in accordance with what, or in accordance with regulation governing original document?
1. What contains documents which reflect on the character, performance, professional qualifications, and fitness of the member?
Enlisted Official Military Personnel File (OMPF)
2. The OMPF is maintained in the Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS) at what?
3. Documents filed in the Enlisted OMPF are placed in 1 of how many categories based on the type of information in the document?
4. Personnel Offices/Personnel Support Activity Detachments shall prepare and forward documents, as required by the document’s governing directive and in compliance with what reference, to update the Enlisted OMPF?
5. Except for administrative or clerical errors, documents filed in the OMPF may not be removed or changed, except by authorization of the what?
6. Administrative or clerical errors may be corrected in the OMPF per what or the regulation requiring the original document?
1. What (Rev. 05-00), U.S. Navy Enlisted (Field) Service Record (FSR) is maintained for each current enlisted member of the Navy or Naval Reserve?
2. What is available to assist the commanding officer in making daily personnel decisions
3. What material shall not be filed in the FSR without first affording the member an opportunity to review the material and submit a statement concerning it?
4. If no statement or declination has been submitted after how many working days after having been advised of such, the adverse material will be filed directly into the FSR with a notation to that effect?
5. The FSR is maintained by the administration office that supports the member’s duty station per what?
Verify the field service record per what?
1. The commanding officer, executive officer, or who else signs or initials all service record documents?
2. When activities are supported by Pay/Personnel Administrative Support System (PASS), the Commanding Officer/Officer in Charge/Petty Officer in Charge/Director, Personnel Support Activity (PERSUPPACT)/Detachment (PERSUPPDET) will administer and maintain service records per what?
3. The commanding officer may grant Enlisted paygrades what and above and civilian GS-5 and above, written “By direction” authority to sign all service record documents except DD4, Enlistment/Reenlistment Document - Armed Forces of the United States, and NAVPERS 1070/601 (Rev. 01-00), Immediate Reenlistment Contract?
4. At the discretion of the commanding officer, what may be used for entries on the NAVPERS 1070/604 (Rev. 03-05), Enlisted Qualification History and accumulative entries on the NAVPERS 1070/613 (Rev.10-81), Administrative Remarks?
1. What is the basic document, which establishes a legal relationship between the U.S. Government and an enlisted member?
2. Preparation and distribution of the DD 4 shall be made by the enlisting activity per what instruction?
3. All signatures of enlisting officers and the member enlisting or reenlisting shall be made per what?
3. All signatures of enlisting officers and the member enlisting or reenlisting shall be made per what?
1. What, (Rev. 01-00), Agreement to Extend Enlistment is an agreement between the U.S. Government and the enlisted member to extend the current enlistment in the Navy or Naval Reserve?
2. Prepare NAVPERS 1070/621 per what reference?
3. Enter signatures on the original NAVPERS 1070/621 document per what?
File a copy of the NAVPERS 1070/621 in the enlisted field service record per what?
1. What Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data is used for both officer and enlisted members, and serves as an application for dependency allowances and an up-to-date record of emergency data?
2. Members may access or print their NAVPERS 1070/602 via their Electronic Service Record (ESR) in what by clicking on dependency data?
3. What lists those conditions when bedside travel may be authorized to support wounded, ill, or injured Sailors?
4. If a situation arises in which a new NAVPERS 1070/602 must be executed expeditiously and NSIPS is not available, what form, Record of Emergency Data shall be used?
5. All Sailors shall verify the accuracy of data on the newest NAVPERS 1070/602 in their OMPF, and the data contained on both the emergency contact and dependency data panels within their electronic service record (ESR). At a minimum this information will be reviewed how often?
6. Selected Reservists will verify the accuracy of data on the newest NAVPERS 1070/602 in their OMPF, and the data contained on both the emergency contact and dependency data panels within their electronic service record (ESR) within the how many-day period immediately prior to reporting for annual training/Active Duty training?
7. Members will be directed to update what whenever there is a change of dependent status, addition of new dependent, and or change of address of a dependent?
8. Sailors with a military spouse will be counseled that they are obligated to enroll their spouse in DEERS and to make an appropriate election for what for their military spouse?
1. What form, (Rev. 10-89), History of Assignments for USN and USNR enlisted members is a chronological record of duty assignments and is maintained throughout member’s active and inactive duty career?
2. Entries will be initialed on the NAVPERS 1070/605 by an authorized individual per what?
3. NAVPERS 1070/605 shall be maintained and filed in FSR, per what?
1. What is a brief, clear-cut record of a period or term of active military service
2. DD 214 shall be prepared and distributed per this manual and what other reference?
1. In all cases, members reenlisting how many months or less prior to the normal expiration of enlistment, or enlistment as extended, will be considered as having completed their initial contract?
2. Members on Active Duty are precluded from serving beyond their high year tenure (HYT) date, as outlined in what?
3. Full Time Support (FTS) personnel must have a minimum Reserve Active Duty Obligation (RADO)of how long for reenlistment?
4. FTS personnel may not reenlist in the Regular Navy; likewise Regular Navy into the FTS community, without approval from what?
5. To determine reenlistment eligibility for members not in compliance with physical fitness assessment (PFA) refer to what instruction?
6. The physical standards for reenlistment are prescribed in Chapter 15 of what reference, which directs use of the periodic health assessment to determine suitability for continued service?
7. Regular members who are within 2 years of qualifying for transfer to the Fleet Reserve, and Reserve members who are entitled to be credited with at least 18 but not less than 20 years of service, may not be separated or denied reenlistment under the provisions of this instruction unless separated under any other provision of law and as set forth in what?
8. The Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) recommends personnel to reenlist at least how long prior to EAOS to avoid possible pay stoppage or discrepancies?
9. Prior approval from NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811) is not required when reenlistment is within how long of EAOS?
10. If member fails next official PFA while on conditional reenlistment, consideration will be given to process member for ADSEP within how many days of PFA failure?
11. Navy Reservists on inactive duty may be discharged at any time for the purpose of incurring a how many- year Selected Reserve (SELRES) obligation to gain entitlement to the SELRES Montgomery GI Bill (MGIB)?
12. Members on inactive duty who are participating in a Navy Reserve Program and who are eligible for reenlistment shall be notified at least how long prior to the expiration of their enlistment or service obligation concerning such expiration and the procedures set up for reenlistment processing?
13. Individuals who are discharged from the Navy Reserve for reasons of expiration of enlistment, fulfillment of service obligation, or convenience of the Government, and who are recommended for reenlistment, may be immediately reenlisted in the Navy Reserve provided they are physically and otherwise qualified, not to exceed quality control standards set forth in what?
14. An immigrant alien who has been in the U.S. for a period of how long beyond the age of majority, who has been lawfully admitted, and who holds an I-151 Alien Registration Receipt Card, is eligible for enlistment or reenlistment in the Navy without being required to apply for U.S. citizenship?
15. Recoupment of reenlistment bonus is not required in the case of early discharges not more than how long prior to expiration of enlistment?
18. Active service obligation beyond 30 years normally will be considered for personnel serving in what pay grade only?
19. Upon reenlistment, a new service record shall be prepared. Refer to what for guidance?
1. The UCMJ and 10 U.S.C. 937 require that certain articles of the UCMJ be carefully explained to each enlisted member at the time of enlistment, after the member has completed how many months of active duty, or, in the case of a member of a Reserve component, after the member has completed basic or recruit training, and at the time the member reenlists?
2. At reenlistment, and following compliance with the provisions of the UCMJ, each Service member will have “On (date), per UCMJ, article 137; member advised of the required provisions of the UCMJ.” Entry made in the permanent service record on what?
2. At reenlistment, and following compliance with the provisions of the UCMJ, each Service member will have “On (date), per UCMJ, article 137; member advised of the required provisions of the UCMJ.” Entry made in the permanent service record on what?
1. Clerical instructions for preparation of the agreement to extend enlistment are contained in what reference?
2. “Agreement to Extend Active Duty” refers to what official form of agreement
3. “Retention eligible member” is defined as a member that meets minimum eligibility criteria outlined per what?
4. What manages extensions for active duty USN and Full Time Support Sailors?
Enlisted Active Programs (PERS-811)
5. What manages Fleet Reserve, retirement and High Year Tenure (HYT) matters for Active duty USN, and PERS-91 manages SELRES?
Enlisted Retirement Branch (PERS-823)
6. 10 U.S.C. 509 allows the term of enlistment to be extended up to how long
7. Extensions shall be executed in monthly increments of 1 to how many months?
8. The enlistment contract cannot be extended for more than how many aggregate months?
9. A maximum of how many extension agreements per enlistment contract are authorized?
10. Refer to what for early reenlistment authority when a member cannot meet service obligation by extension due to two or more extensions or 24 total aggregate extension months on a current enlistment?
11. A list of overmanned ratings by zone is updated how often?
12. A member whose normal EAOS falls within the wife’s pregnancy may execute an extension not to exceed how long beyond spouse’s estimated delivery date?
13. Refer to what for information about OBLISERV in connection with a PCS transfer?
14. Members in receipt of an authorization for transfer to the Fleet Reserve may not extend their enlistment more than how many days beyond approved Fleet Reserve date without specific approval from PERS-823?
15. To execute an extension, use what?
16. The CO cannot cancel an extension that gained a significant benefit or has an approved Physical Fitness Assessment Separation Waiver without authority from what?
17. For non-5/6-year obligor members disenrolled, through no fault of their own, from single "A" or "C" service schools, or consecutive service schools, payback will be determined by using the OBLISERV for schools chart in what?
When COs do not have authority to cancel extensions of enlistment and early release warrants consideration (e.g., within force shaping initiatives), the member may consider requesting early release from what?
1. Enlisted members may volunteer to be held beyond expiration of their enlistment or active duty obligation, or other period of OBLISERV. Refer to what?
2. The normal date of expiration of enlistment or extension of enlistment of a member serving aboard a ship in foreign waters may be extended until return of the ship to a continental port of the United States (U.S.) or until transfer of member concerned to the separation activity nearest port of debarkation. So retained shall be separated not later than how many days after arrival in the U.S.?
3. Enlistments are extended automatically in the case of members whose normal date of expiration of enlistment occurs while they are serving in what temporary capacity?
4. Members in the Regular Navy, Navy Reserve, and Fleet Reserve on active duty other than training duty of less than how many days, who are in need of medical care or hospitalization as a result of disease or injury incident to service and not due to their own misconduct, may be retained with their consent beyond the date of their normal expiration of active OBLISERV?
5. Members for whom tacit consent to retention is assumed ordinarily will not be retained in excess of how long beyond the date of their normal expiration of active obligated service (EAOS)?
6. Members being processed before a what shall not be released from active duty or discharged until the Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) has completed the final action on their cases and instructions received from NAVPERSCOM, Retirements Branch, (PERS-482)?
7. Members of Naval Service awaiting disposition of criminal proceedings by a foreign jurisdiction are afforded statutory and regulatory protection and benefits attendant to their status as members of the Armed Forces. At least how long before EAOS, member will be offered opportunity to extend member’s enlistment voluntarily for the duration of legal proceedings and any subsequent punishment?
1. What is a vital and effective force shaping tool to properly size and shape the active and Reserve Navy?
High Year Tenure (HYT) Program
2. HYT dates for ACDU and FTS personnel are computed using what?
3. What is the HYT for E1 and E2 personnel?
4. What is the HYT for E3 personnel?
5. What is the HYT for E4 personnel?
6. What is the HYT for E5 personnel?
7. What is the HYT for E6 personnel?
8. What is the HYT for E7 personnel?
9. What is the HYT for E8 personnel?
10. What is the HYT for E9 personnel?
11. Who may exceed 30 years service provided they meet certain requirements?
Command Master Chiefs (CMCs)
12. What is the HYT for SELRES E1 and E2 personnel?
13. What is the HYT for SELRES E3 personnel?
14. What is the HYT for SELRES E4 personnel?
15. What is the HYT for SELRES E5 personnel?
16. What is the HYT for SELRES E6 personnel?
17. What is the HYT for SELRES E7 personnel?
18. What is the HYT for SELRES E8 personnel?
19. What is the HYT for SELRES E9 personnel?
20. E-4 personnel approved for what program are authorized to exceed HYT dates?
21. Requests for ACDU and FTS HYT waivers shall normally be submitted using what
22. Nuclear-trained Sailors will submit HYT waiver requests to what?
23. Requests for SELRES personnel HYT waivers shall be submitted to NAVPERSCOM, Reserve Enlisted Status Branch/FTS Recall and Conversions (PERS-913) using NAVPERS 1306/7, and should arrive how long prior to established HYT date?
24. What is the final disposition authority for cancelling HYT waivers?
25. If the previously approved HYT waiver is cancelled, ACDU and FTS Sailors will be separated within how long of cancellation, unless they have sufficient time to transfer to the Fleet Reserve or retire?
26. ACDU and FTS personnel who are separated due to HYT gates, and are advancement eligible at the time of separation, may be eligible for full what?
27. In order to be eligible for any amount of ISP, ACDU and FTS members must have completed at least 6, but less than 20 years of active service, and must enter into an agreement to serve in the Ready Reserve for a period of not less than how long?
28. To preclude unwarranted ISP recoupment action by Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS), commands separating Sailors in pay grades E-5 and below for HYT, who are otherwise fully retainable, shall enter a reentry code of what in Block 27 of member’s DD-214 Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty?
29. SELRES E-3 through E-9 personnel may extend or reenlist for any period of time per MILPERSMAN 1160- 030 or what else?
30. ACDU and FTS E-9 personnel receiving an HYT waiver will forfeit what eligibility?
31. What defines and discusses twilight tour eligibility?
34. HYT gates for OSVETs in pay grades what and below are computed based on total active Navy service only?
35. ACDU, FTS, and SELRES personnel shall appear before a career development board how long prior to reaching HYT?
1. Qualifications for Naval Aircrew Warfare Specialist (NAWS) designation require personnel be qualified as a crewmember per what reference, and maintain a consistent record of above average performance per MILPERSMAN 1220-010 in addition to other requirements?
2. Qualifications for Naval Aircrew Warfare Specialist (NAWS) designation require personnel to successfully complete positional qualification requirements for the respective aircraft within how many months of reporting to the permanent duty station (PDS)in addition to other requirements?
3. Commanding officers (COs) shall certify in writing the member’s qualifications in aircraft positions per NAVPERS 15560 and what reference?
4. A NAWS designation letter should be prepared per what reference and presented to the member when the Aircrew Warfare Breast Insignia is awarded?
4. A NAWS designation letter should be prepared per what reference and presented to the member when the Aircrew Warfare Breast Insignia is awarded?
5. Only active aircrew, on and after what date, are eligible for certificates of designation for NAWS?
6. Whenever a member qualifies as a Naval Aircrewman, an entry shall be made on the what in the service record?
7. Whenever a member is disqualified from aircrew duty, an entry shall be made on NAVPERS 1070/613 showing the reason for disqualification and rescinding of authorization to wear the
Physical disqualification
8. The assignment or removal of aircrew NECs shall be per BUPERSINST 1326.4D and what else?
9. The NAWS Insignia consists of a Breast Insignia as prescribed by what reference?
10. Servicemembers designated as Naval Aircrewmen on or before what date are grandfathered and considered designated as NAWSs?
1. Service members who are ordered to make a permanent change of station (PCS) move are entitled to personal travel and transportation allowances per what reference?
JFTR, Volume 1, Chapter 5
2. PDS’s are what to each other when they are both in an area ordinarily serviced by the same local transportation system, and Service members could reasonably commute daily from home to either PDS?
1. What is a Navy process to obtain permission from an area commander to bring dependents into a specific area?
Dependent entry approval (DEA)
2. DEA must be used in conjunction with additional information/requirements in DOD 4500.54-G and what else?
3. DEA requests must be submitted at least how long prior to sponsors arrival?
4. Navy personnel ordered overseas with the what should liaise with the gaining command to determine if DEA is required?
1. What is payable to a member with family members, when family members perform an authorized move in connection with a permanent change of station?
2. A member is not entitled to more than how many DLA payments during any fiscal year unless SECNAV approved exigencies arise?
3. Requests for a SECNAV approved exception to the one DLA payment during any fiscal year must be submitted at an early date, as approximately how many weeks are required for processing?
4. When PCS orders are received for a member and it is determined at the command level that a SECNAVFIND
5. What will maintain the master file of SECNAVFIND requests for statistical and record purposes?
1. When members are retained on active duty and approved for Temporary Limited Duty by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-83) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
2. When members are retained on active duty pending physical evaluation board preceedings what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
3. When members are retained on active duty and are approved for permanent limited duty by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-83) for CONUS or overseas shore duty only what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
4. When members are retained on active duty and are approved for permanent limited duty by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-83) for CONUS shore duty only what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
5. When members are retained on active duty and are pending temporary disability retirement what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
6. When members are retained on active duty and are pending permanent disability retirement what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
7. When members are retained on active duty and are pending separation for intentional misconduct or willful neglect (IMWN) or incurred during unauthorized absence (IDUA) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
8. When members are retained on active duty and are pending disability separation with severance pay what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
9. When members are retained on active duty and approved assignment limited designation by NAVPERSCOM (PERS-40BB) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
10. When members are retained on active duty and pending disability separation without Severance Pay existed prior to service (EPTS/EPTE) what Disability/Retirement/LIMDU Designator will be assigned?
1. Billet control, personnel procurement, training, and distribution are processes in what
Enlisted Distribution Management System
2. Three distinct and separate functions of enlisted distribution management controls were established, which are allocation control, manning control, and what else?
Allocation control is the function of allocating available personnel resources to the MCAs, NAVPERSCOM, and or what else?
4. Manning control consists of two functions; What are they?
5. Assignment Control is selecting, detailing, and ordering of particular Sailors to fill requisitions per manning levels and priorities designated by the what?
6. NAVPERSCOM, Enlisted Distribution Division (PERS-40) is the what for all USN/FTS personnel?
7. A Sailor becomes available to the ACA for detailing purposes 9 months prior to the Sailor’s projected rotation date (PRD), but the ACA cannot move them more than 3 months early or how many months late without MCA concurrence?
8. A Sailor is an asset under the control of the MCA from the time of issuance of orders to an activity under that MCA, until how many months prior to the Sailor’s PRD?
9. To support allocation, manning, and assignment control functions, how many automated personnel management information systems have been developed?
10. What are specified Navy Enlisted Classifications (NECs) or ratings composed of billets?
Distributable communities
11. What exercises management control over all distributable communities by establishing, maintaining, publishing and controlling the hierarchy of the structure of distributable communities?
11. What exercises management control over all distributable communities by establishing, maintaining, publishing and controlling the hierarchy of the structure of distributable communities?
12. When NAVPERSCOM (PERS-4013) determines that an NEC will be managed as a distributable community,
13. What NEC distributable community consists of personnel who are projected and assigned to consecutive tours within that NEC skill area?
14. What NEC distributable community consists of a variety of ratings sharing a common supplemental skill which may not be generically associated with the Sailor’s actual rating?
15. A complete list of distributable community NECs and ratings is available through what program
Active Readiness Information System
16. NECs which are not defined as distributable communities, but which are used to identify special categories of personnel assignments, are called what distributable community NECs?
17. Using the projected level of assets for a composite and the billets authorized (BA) each activity, what determines the most equitable level of manning an activity can expect for each detailing composite?
18. What manning indicates a Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) or MCA’s decision to man the activity at a level other than normal manning?
19. What predicts the level of personnel assets and provides a base upon which the MCA can build a manning plan to apportion the assets to each activity?
20. The Personnel Requisition System measures the personnel needs of each activity for the forthcoming how many months by comparing projected on board assets to the NMP and NMP to BA?
21. Reassignment of personnel due to decommissioning/inactivation or major billet reductions shall be per what procedures?
1. Commanding officers (COs) of Type 2 duty units may hold in abeyance orders received for members scheduled to be transferred during the period starting how many months preceding deployment (departure from continental United States (CONUS) or homeport) and ending the month deployment will be completed?
2. Orders for members serving in Type 4 duty units may be held in abeyance at any time, but operational holds (OPHOLDs) in these cases shall not extend more than how many months beyond the area tour applicable to the member?
3. COs may request OPHOLD status for members when loss of the member results in or exacerbates a C-3 personnel readiness condition on a deployed (how many days from homeport) Type 2/Type 4 unit?
4. Members may not be involuntarily extended beyond their what without specific approval?
5. COs who wish to delay orders per this article will request such action by message to NAVPERSCOM (PERS- 4013) and except in emergency situations, this report should be made at least how many days prior to transfer month?
To request assignment to a special program, contact rating detailer for release to a special program assignment or submit NAVPERS 1306/7 Enlisted Personnel Action Request to applicable detailer at Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM) approximately how many months prior to member’s projected rotation date (PRD)?
Individuals selected for special programs are expected to meet or exceed Navy physical fitness standards per what reference?
3. Many special programs require a security clearance and member is to acquire the security clearance specified in the program description prior to transfer per reference (b)?
4. Careerist with how many or more years of active service must complete special programs minimum tour of duty prior to being authorized to transfer to the Fleet Reserve?
5. COs will ensure members are fully qualified for special programs assignment. The CO’s signature on what is the endorsement?
6. Special program waivers are submitted to what?
7. What message is used to report discrepancies discovered as a result of the screening which is conducted by the transferring command and sent to the transferring command?
1. Assignment to Brig/TPU staff will be for how long?
2. Members in what paygrades and above who have completed at least 24 months active duty, who are mature and emotionally stable, no history of financial difficulties, no civil court convictions since joining the military other than minor traffic violations, and no documented in-service drug use are eligible for assignment to Brig/TPU staff ?
3. Members selected for assignment to a brig staff will be ordered via Corrections Specialist Training (what NEC) at NTTC Lackland AFB?
4. Due to brig staff members’ job requirements in which possession of weapons may be authorized, members with open cases of what type are ineligible?
Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
5. In addition to the general selection criteria for Corrections Specialist (NEC 9575) or Correctional Custody Unit (CCU) staff, members being considered for duty as a Correctional Counselor must have what experience on a brig or CCU staff in addition to other requirements?
6. Required obligated service (OBLISERV) for the Correctional Counselor program is how many months?
What orders detaches a member from one duty station and assigns the member to another station?
2. What orders involve detachment from one permanent duty station (PDS) and assignment to a new PDS?
Permanent change of station (PCS)
3. What orders involve detachment from one station and assignment to another station or stations for TEMDU pending further assignment to a new PDS or for return to the old permanent station?
4. What orders assign a member to a duty that member is to perform in addition to and in conjunction with that permanent duty?
5. Any ADDU orders of a permanent or semi-permanent nature (more than how many months in duration) to a command other than the officer’s parent command where they perform paramount duty for officers must be issued only by Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM)?
6. What orders assign a member to TEMDU in addition to present duties, and direct the member upon completion of this TEMADD to resume regular or temporary duty?
Temporary additional duty
7. What orders authorize a member to perform, in addition to present duties, such travel from time to time as necessary for a purpose stated in the orders, the travel being from the duty station to (and from) points designated in the orders?
8. What orders assign Inactive personnel and Persons being newly commissioned from civilian status to a PDS
What is a period of time not chargeable as leave, delay, or allowed travel time?
2. The amount of proceed time permitted is dependent upon the urgency of the transfer, but will not exceed how long?
3. Proceed time is authorized only when members are executing PCS orders to or from ships or mobile units having a sea/shore rotation what codes, an “all others” tour, and overseas accompanied tours, includes from overseas to overseas, but not in same geographical location?
4. Orders to and from units afloat and ashore located in same metropolitan areas or less than how many miles apart is not authorized proceed time
5. What area is defined as the corporate limits of the city or town in which the member is stationed?
6. PDS is defined as the assignment to duty by PCS orders at the same activity for a period of more than 6 months, or assignment to a school or combination of schools at the same location for a period of how many weeks or more?
7. Only how many periods of proceed time may be authorized in the execution of orders directing a member to proceed to one or more TDY stations en route to a PDS?
Orders for transfer of officers and enlisted patients between naval hospitals, or between a naval hospital an Armed Forces medical facility of another service, are generally issued from the CO of the naval hospital from which travel begins, after the transferring naval hospital has received prior approval under procedures set forth in BUMEDINST 6230.1E and what else?
2. To expedite processing of officer and enlisted patients the service, health, and pay records should accompany the member upon transfer as specified in what?
2. Commanding officers (COs) are authorized to issue permissive TAD authorizations for the purpose of residence hunting. Upon receipt of permanent change of station (PCS) orders TAD may be authorized for up to how many normal work days prior to execution of a PCS move?
3. Normally, how many permissive residence hunting TADs are authorized per PCS move?
4. What allows an overseas servicemember and one dependent family member to travel with the servicemember utilizing Space Available, Category III, when permissive TAD is granted for the sole purpose of residence hunting incident to a pending PCS?
5. If the servicemember does not perform the residence hunting TAD prior to reporting to the new PDS, the permissive residence hunting TAD period may be authorized by the CO of the new PDS up to how many days after the servicemember reports for duty?
6. The CO at the new PDS may authorize special liberty for the purpose of locating quarters, per what, in lieu of a residence hunting TAD authorization?
7. What is defined as the area where a member could commute daily from a residence to a PDS?
1. What orders will be endorsed with the time, date, and place of reporting?
Permanent Change of Station (PCS)
2. Government messing is considered available only if a government mess, as defined in what, is available or there are not adequate meal facilities?
Who are the authority for issuing orders for separation when no orders are issued by Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM)?
Commanding Officers (COs)
2. Orders for separation shall not normally be issued more than how many months prior to the effective date of separation?
3. In the case of Filipino nationals transferred to the Philippines for separation, the provisions of what apply?
4. Orders may be issued without NAVPERSCOM approval up to how long prior to separation date for members being separated as a result of decommissioning, command deactivation, base closure, or homeport change?
5. Refer to what for members who desire to be separated at a separation activity other than the separation activity nearest their duty station or port of debarkation?
6. STOs shall be prepared per what?
1. Who determines the total number of enlisted flight billet requirements in the naval aeronautical organization?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) (N13)
2. Who are individuals who participate regularly in aerial operations and are assigned under a Distribution NEC of 78XX or 82XX?
3. Entitlement to crewmember flight pay exists only when what is specifically stated in the orders under which the member is serving?
4. Members assigned to how many months LIMDU shall be authorized DIFCREW orders by NAVPERSCOM only if it can be reasonably expected that member will be eligible to return to full flight duties at the completion of the LIMDU assignment?
5. DIFCREW shall not be authorized for consecutive assignments to or extensions of LIMDU, which exceed how many months?
6. To become entitled to incentive pay for aviation duty, members shall meet all the requirements contained in what reference in addition to other requirements?
Procedures for the activation, suspension, and termination of Aviation Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay (HDIP) are contained in what reference?
1. What is an administrative authorization to assume the title and wear the uniform of a higher paygrade without entitlement to the pay and allowances of that grade?
2. E-5/6 Selectees may be frocked upon notification of selection from what?
3. Members must elect frocking by signing a what?
4. Frocking is not authorized for members who do not meet the physical fitness/weight/body fat requirements per what reference?
5. Performance evaluations shall be prepared in the member’s frocked paygrade per what reference?
Commanding Officer (CO), Navy Recruit Training Command (NAVCRUITRACOM) may advance up to what top percent of each graduating class to the next higher paygrade (E-2 or E-3)?
2. COs of traditional training schools are authorized to advance the number one “A” School graduate in each class to the next higher paygrade not to exceed what?
3. COs of non-traditional training schools (e.g., Interservice Training Review Organization (ITRO)/Computer Based Training (CBT)/Self-Paced/Accelerated Training Pipelines are authorized to advance what percentile of “A” School graduates to the next higher paygrade not to exceed E-3?
COs of traditional and non-traditional training schools may recommend what top percent of the qualified candidates in each “A” School graduating class for AAP?
5. The accelerated advancement for AAP recomendees will be held in abeyance for how many months from report date to ultimate duty station?
6. Commands will ensure submission of what event for AAP advancement to E-4?
7. CO of Ceremonial Guard unit may advance all Sailors who successfully complete Ceremonial Guard indoctrination to the paygrade of what?
8. Personnel who enlist under the Divefarer Program are authorized accelerated advancement to what upon completion of diving, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD), or sea-air-land (SEAL) training?
9. The Aircrew Rescue Swimmer Program is a how many-year obligation?
9. The Aircrew Rescue Swimmer Program is a how many-year obligation?
1. Only the most highly qualified Musician (MU) personnel are selected for duty with the U.S. Navy Band, Washington, DC and what else in Annapolis, MD?
2. If qualified in all other respects, personnel reporting for duty with the U.S. Navy Band and Naval Academy Band in a paygrade below what may be recommended for advancement without regard to time-in-service, provided they complete all the military requirements?
3. Chapter 4, Section 15 of what instruction details new accessions accelerated advancement policies for the U.S. Navy Band and Naval Academy Band?
COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 1130.8G
1. Reductions in rate by a Commanding Officer (CO) may be considered as coming within two general classes which are those made as a punishment under what article of the UCMJ or those made by reason of incompetency?
2. The CO is not considered to have the authority at NJP to reduce a servicemember in what paygrades or above?
3. Two consecutive marking periods are defined as two regular evaluation periods or one regular evaluation period and one special evaluation period covering a minimum of how long?
4. Reduction, of E6 and below by reason of incompetency shall be supported by a mark of 1.0 in specific traits on NAVPERS 1616/26 for at least two consecutive marking periods covering a minimum performance period of how long?
5. For Master Chief, Senior Chief, or Chief’s, the CO may recommend reduction in rate for reasons of incompetency to what?
6. Members reduced in rate or recommended for reduction in rate under the authority of article 1450-010 may be reduced how many paygrades?
7. Personnel reduced in rate per article 1450-010 are ineligible for reenlistment, per what reference?
A member may be declared a deserter if the member has been absent without authority for how many consecutive days?
Termination of UA is a legal term for the purpose of criminal aspects, and will form the basis of a later charge and specification per what reference?
Date and time of desertion always start from the initial what?
Unauthorized Absence (UA)
2. Declare the member a deserter by preparing and transmitting DD 553 (5-04), Deserter/Absentee Wanted by the Armed Forces, per what reference?
3. When conditions outlined in MILPERSMAN 1600-010 are met complete close-out evaluation/fitness report per what reference?
What form is mandatory for creation of a warrant and serves as the official deserter declaration notification?
5. If member deserted from a foreign port, forward a copy of DD 553 and a picture, if available, to the nearest what?
United States (U.S.) consul
6. Desertion cases are complicated because, in most cases, returnees are separated from their what?
Field Service Record (FSR)
7. Commands are responsible for the accurate completion and submission of DD 553, timely deserter status declaration, and completing appropriate service record entries prior to forwarding records and documents to what?
8. Retain a deserter’s record on board for how long?
9. Contact NACIC within how many days of decommissioning date to arrange for deletion of these members from the command’s Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR) (accounting category code (ACC) 109 - Deserter)?
10. Commands will send NACIC all applicable records and documents after a member has been absent for how many days or more and has been declared a deserter where the command is either an overseas shore activity, a unit home-ported overseas, a deployed unit (absent from home port for more than 90 days consecutively), or the member had a previous period of desertion?
11. Any monies in a deserter’s ATM account on board a ship will be handled per what reference?
12. Upon receipt of DD 553, NACIC will change the member’s on board personnel accounting status to Deserter what?
13. Upon return to military control, NACIC will change the member’s ACC to the appropriate status. Allow how many days for this transaction to reflect on the command’s EDVR?
What provides actions to be taken upon return of a deserter to military control?
2. The activity to which a member returns will submit DD 616 (Rev 12-99), Report of Return of Absentee to all recipients of what, (Rev. 5-04), Deserter/Absentee Wanted by the Armed Forces?
3. The deserter’s parent command to which they are assigned for disciplinary action or disposition is responsible for completing what,(Rev. 8-07), Record of Unauthorized Absence?
4. Commands will not pick up or escort apprehended deserters unless authorized by what?
5. Navy is required to notify the what of the final disposition of all military deserters?
6. All Navy activities will forward to NACIC the deserter's final disposition via message within how many days of the deserter's return?
7. Proper documentation is required in order to reflect the member accurately in the Enlisted Master File, remove the status of desertion, and clear the warrant for arrest from the what?
Per what instruction, upon completion of disciplinary action if the member is a recruit who has not completed recruit training, transfer the member to RTC?
2. Per JAGINST 5800.7C, upon completion of disciplinary action if the member is FTS, make member available per what, or process for separation?
3. Per JAGINST 5800.7C, upon completion of disciplinary action if the member is apprehended, convicted, and confined in excess of how many days while enroute to a new duty station, make member available, NAVPERSCOM will reassign to comparable duty or process for separation?
4. Availability reports will be submitted at least how long prior to completion of confinement?
5. What provide maximum opportunity for prisoners to return to duty as productive Sailors
Each member serving on Active Duty (ACDU), performing Active Duty for Training (ACDUTRA), or performing inactive duty training is automatically insured to what amount under SGLI, unless otherwise reduced by the member?
2. Members of the Selected Reserve, and those assigned to a nonpay unit scheduled to perform at least how many drills annually, are covered on a full-time basis for SGLI?
3. Members assigned to, and who upon application would be eligible for assignment to, the Retired Reserve, who have not reached what birthday, but who have completed at least 20 years of satisfactory service creditable for Reserve retired pay, are eligible for coverage under the Veterans' Group Life Insurance (VGLI) program?
4. If the SGLI/VGLI insured member has been certified by a physician as “terminally ill”, member may elect under SGLI or VGLI the what?
5. The member may receive a lump sum payment of up to what percent of the SGLI or VGLI coverage under the ABO?
6. Terminally ill is defined as having a medical prognosis of a life expectancy of how many months or less?
7. By electing the ABO benefit, the total amount of SGLI/VGLI benefits otherwise payable at death will be reduced by the amount paid by what as a reduced benefit?
8. Beneficiary and settlement option designations should be updated whenever what is completed
9. Members may decline SGLI/VGLI coverage or request reduced coverage in any increment of what amount by completing, in their own handwriting, SGLV 8286?
10. When members request reduction or cancellation of SGLI, they shall be counseled as to the effect of their action and an appropriate entry shall be made on what of their service record?
11. Termination of SGLI occurs on what day after separation from ACDU or ACDUTRA under calls, or orders that specify a period of 31 days or more unless the member returns to an active status in the Naval Reserve?
12. A member has how long to apply for VGLI coverage?
13. Members who are totally disabled at the time of separation may purchase VGLI while remaining totally disabled up to how long following separation?
14. The member may request the SGLI/VGLI insurance be paid to the beneficiary in a lump sum or in how many equal monthly installments?
15. SGLI designation of beneficiary(ies) will be reviewed and verified according to what for officers and enlisted members?
16. Family coverage under the SGLI program was created by what reference and became effective on 1 November 2001?
17. Dependent children of members participating in SGLI are automatically covered for what amount?
18. Spouses are covered for what amount of family coverage under the SGLI program, which may be reduced or declined entirely by the member?
19. What should be used to request family coverage any time after the member’s election?
20. Veterans' Group Life Insurance is a how many-year renewable term policy which has no cash, loan, paid-up, or extended values?
21. Effective 1 January what year, individuals in the IRR are entitled to VGLI coverage
22. Service Disabled Veterans Insurance (SDVI) (policy numbers prefixed with what) is the only NSLI program of insurance currently open to new issues?
23. NSLI policies basically provide for the waiver of premiums in the event the insured becomes totally disabled for 6 consecutive months prior to attaining what age?
24. NSLI policy while in force under premium-paying conditions, may be converted to a policy of the same or a lesser amount, in multiples of $500, minimum of what amount?
25. A major command is one with how many or more permanently assigned members unless further defined by the cognizant area coordinator?
1. Who is one who accompanies an eligible relative to the burial ceremony of a deceased Sailor?
2. The spouse and children (including children from a previous marriage) of a deceased Sailor living in government quarters are entitled to either remain in government housing for how many days?
3. What is authorized only when a medical authority determines in writing that the presence of family members
4. What provides further explanation of DUSTWUN?
5. What Program Manager is responsible for the execution, funding, and technical support of casualty assistance and funeral honors, support procedures, and assessing program delivery to ensure the Sailor’s and family’s needs are met in times of crisis?
6. What is the official representative of SECNAV who provides information, resources, and assistance to the Primary Next of Kin (PNOK) and Secondary Next of Kin (SNOK) in the event of a casualty?
7. What provide support and coordination for benefits, funeral expenses, travel, and reports required by Department of Defense (DoD) and Congress?
8. What database is the information systems standard which supports uniform procedures, accurate accounting and reporting of casualties, benefits tracking, and coordination of mortuary affairs?
9. A Death Gratuity provides immediate financial assistance to eligible beneficiary(ies) of what amount
10. What form shows proof of death to government and commercial agencies that pay benefits to survivors of eligible Sailors?
11. What is a VA benefit program that pays a monthly payment to a surviving spouse, child, or parent of a veteran because of the service connected death of a veteran?
12. DUSTWUN affords the commanding officer (CO) up to how many days to conduct search and rescue efforts, to investigate the circumstances of the loss incident, and to assemble information regarding the Sailor’s disappearance?
13. FSGLI provides up to a maximum of $100,000 of insurance coverage for spouses, not to exceed the amount of SGLI the insured Sailor has in force, and what amount for dependent children?
14. What is a court appointed person or institution responsible for handling the affairs of a minor's estate, particularly the handling of money and property on behalf of the minor?
15. Loco Parentis is any person(s) or institution who acted in place of a Sailor’s parents for a period of not less than how long at any time before the Sailor joined the Navy?
16. A Sailor may be placed in a “Missing” casualty status only after an initial board of inquiry is convened by CHNAVPERS and the board’s casualty status recommendation has been approved by what?
17. A person declared “Missing” is categorized as what if the Sailor is a member of an organized element that has been surrounded by a hostile force to prevent escape of its members?
18. A person declared “Missing” is categorized as what if the Sailor is a member of an organized element that has been surrounded by a hostile force, compelling it to surrender?
19. A naval disaster or accident in which loss of life or injury occurs to more than how many persons at a specific location, such as the confines of a ship, aircraft, or the geographic limits of a single shore-based activity?
20. What is responsible for the overall administration of the Navy Mortuary Affairs Program?
21. Notification and condolence calls should be accomplished within how long of receipt of casualty?
22. What is defined as a person who is authorized to direct disposition of human remains
23. Sailors identify a PADD on what form?
24. The person most closely related to the deceased Sailor is considered what for casualty notification and assistance purposes?
25. The casualty status of a person is defined as Seriously Ill or Seriously Injured (SI) whose illness or injury requires medical attention, and medical authority declares that death is possible, but not likely within how many hours, and/or the severity is such that it is permanent and life-altering?
26. SGLI is a low cost group life insurance for Sailors available in $50,000 increments up to the maximum of what amount?
27. Sailors are automatically insured under SGLI for the maximum amount of $400,000 unless an election is filed reducing the insurance by what increments or canceling it entirely?
28. What is a traumatic injury protection rider under SGLI that provides for payment to any Sailor covered by SGLI who sustains a traumatic injury that results in certain severe losses?
29. The casualty status of a person is defined as Very Seriously Ill or Very Seriously Injured (VSI) whose illness or injury is such that medical authority declares it more likely than not that death will occur within how many hours?
1. What establishes casualty reporting procedures for Service members categorized as “DUSTWUN” and “Missing” and are two separate and distinct casualty categories?
2. What is a transitory casualty status that is used when the responsible commander suspects the Sailor may be a casualty and whose absence is involuntary, but sufficient evidence does not exist to make a definite determination of missing or deceased?
3. Only who has the authority to place a Sailor in a "Missing" status
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
4. No later than how long following receipt of information that a Sailor is absent from their place of duty and the status of that Sailor meets the definition of DUSTWUN, the responsible commander shall submit a PCR per MILPERSMAN 1770-030?
5. DUSTWUN affords the commander up to how long to conduct search and rescue efforts, investigate the circumstances of the loss incident, and make preliminary assessments and recommendations regarding the Sailor’s disappearance?
6. Commanders shall submit a recommendation for a casualty status of "Missing" via what
7. No later than how many days after SECNAV makes determination of the Missing status, SECNAV will provide PNOK and other members of the immediate family an unclassified summary of the Unit Commanders' and the Initial Board of Inquiry reports?
8. Travel and transportation may be provided for the dependents, household goods (HHG), and personal effects of Sailors on active duty that are officially reported in a "Missing" status for a period of how many or more days?
What shall be submitted for a members death?
2. of outcome, all suicide related behaviors must be reported via what reporting system per NAVADMIN 122/09?
3. All suicide and suicide attempts by active and reserve Sailors require the completion of what
4. A PCR is only required for suicides and suicide related behaviors which result in VSI, SI, or what else?
5. An initial PCR must be submitted within how long of a command learning of casualty?
6. If E-mail or FAX capability does not exist, PCR may be submitted by what precedence message
7. What casualty type defines a Sailor who is wounded or killed “in action” or due to terrorist action
A naval disaster or accident is defined as a loss of life or injury to more than how many persons at a specific location?
2. After submitting the initial status and follow up messages, submit individual Personnel Casualty Report (PCR), per what?
3. The Navy Personnel Command Crisis Action Organization (NPC CAO), consisting of a Crisis Action Team (CAT) and what else, should be activated when a major naval disaster or accident occurs?
Emergency Coordination Center (ECC)
What provides guidance to commands for the handling and shipping of personal effects to the person eligible to receive effects, as defined per DoD Instruction 1300.18?
PL 111-84 and section 411h of what reference authorize transportation of eligible travelers to the bedside of a Sailor; incident to hospitalization for treatment of wounds, illness, or injury for the period of his or her in-patient treatment?
2. An individual designated by the Sailor to travel to bedside during the period of his or her in-patient treatment. A Sailor may make designation verbally at the time of hospitalization or annotate designation on what form, Record of Emergency Data?
3. Parents or persons in loco parentis (including fathers and mothers through adoption) and persons who stood in loco parentis to the Sailor for a period of not less than how long immediately before the Sailor entered the United States (U.S.) Navy may be declared as a family member?
4. The person most closely related to the deceased Sailor is considered what for casualty notification and assistance purposes?
5. Commands are required to submit a Personnel Casualty Report (PCR) within how long of learning of the incident?
6. If a Sailor becomes a casualty while away from his or her command, the local Navy activity apprised of the circumstances shall verify the casualty and notify the Sailor’s command and what else?
7. VSI is the casualty status of a Sailor whose illness or injury is such that medical authority declares it more likely than not, that death will occur within how long?
8. What is the casualty status of a Sailor whose illness or injury requires medical attention, medical authority declares that death is possible, but not likely, within 72 hours and or the severity is such that it is permanent and life-altering?
9. Whether the Sailor is hospitalized within the continental United States (CONUS), outside the continental United States (OCONUS), or aboard ship, it is the primary responsibility of the Sailor’s what to ensure notification is made to the PNOK?
10. Travel and transportation may be provided for not more than how many of the Sailor’s designated individuals?
11. Each designated individual may be provided one roundtrip between the designated individual's home and the medical treatment facility (MTF) in any how many-day period?
12. If a non-medical attendant has been designated for a Sailor during the 60-day period, no more than a total of how many round-trips may be provided in a 60-day period at Government expense?
What must be submitted as soon as possible once the command is notified of a dependent death?
Personnel Casualty Report (PCR)
2. What form must be completed to Claim for Family Coverage Death Benefits?
3. In the case of infant death where the child is less than how many days old, an official State-issued birth certificate is required?
4. What provides coverage in the event of the stillborn death of dependent children?
5. A member's stillborn child is defined as a member's natural child whose death occurs before expulsion, extraction, or delivery, and whose Fetal weight is 350 grams or more; or if fetal weigh is unknown, whose duration in utero was how many or more completed weeks in gestation?
What shall be paid expeditiously to, or for, eligible beneficiaries of a Sailor who dies while on active duty (ACDU) or while performing authorized travel to or from ACDU?
2. A death gratuity shall be paid to or for eligible beneficiaries after official notification of the death of a Sailor (who dies during the how many-day period beginning on the day following the date of discharge or release under honorable conditions)?
3. A death gratuity may be paid only if a determination is made by whom that the death resulted from an injury or disease that was incurred or aggravated during ACDU, IDT, or while performing authorized travel directly to or from such duty?
Secretary of Veterans Affairs
4. Sailors may designate one or more persons to receive all, or a portion of, the death gratuity. The amount payable to the designated beneficiary will be specified in what percent increments?
5. The death gratuity payable is what amount?
6. Parents also include persons who stood in loco parentis to the decedent for a period of not less than how long before entering the Navy?
7. All Sailors should access their Navy Standard Integrated Personnel System (NSIPS) Electronic Service Record and verify their what, Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data (i.e., page 2) on the Dependency Data screen?
8. Upon notification by the servicing PERSUPPDET or PERSOFF that a Sailor has designated a portion or none of the death gratuity to their spouse, prepare, sign, and send the Spouse Notification Letter. Retain a copy of the letter in command files for how long?
9. Each command should have at least how many trained officer or senior enlisted CACOs?
10. Coordinate all payments of the death gratuity through what?
11. Payment of death gratuity will be made to the eligible beneficiary by Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Cleveland Center (DFAS-CL) via what, Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) Data Sheet?
Enlisted members who have completed how many years of active service may be transferred to the Fleet Reserve (at their request)?
2. Approval of a request for transfer to the Fleet Reserve will normally be withheld until the member has completed 24 months time in grade for pay grades what and above (may be waived up to 12 months)?
3. Requests for PRD adjustments must be received by NAVPERSCOM how many months in advance of the requested Fleet Reserve date?
4. Members in what capacity are not considered to be in the disability evaluation process and will be processed as a regular Fleet Reserve request?
5. Local approval of LIMDU is not authorized when it will retain a member beyond how many years of active service?
6. Member undergoing non-elective medical treatment (not involving physical evaluation board (PEB) proceedings, or appearance before a medical board requiring departmental action) may be retained up to how long after fleet reserve transfer date with authorization from NAVPERSCOM, (PERS-8354)?
7. Member who is involved in PEB proceedings or appearance before a medical board requiring departmental action, shall not be transferred to the Fleet Reserve until final action is completed and instructions are received from what?
8. The law requires that a member complete at least 20 years of service to be eligible for retirement benefits by reason of physical disability when the disability is ratable at less than what percent by the Veterans Administration Schedule for Rating Disabilities?
9. COs may request to defer transfer to Fleet Reserve up to how long beyond date authorized only when urgent operational commitments demand member’s service?
10. Pay grades E-6 and below should submit request how many months prior to requested Fleet Reserve transfer date?
11. Pay grades E-7 – E-9 should submit the request how many months prior to the requested Fleet Reserve transfer date?
12. What is the preferred method for submission of fleet reserve request to NAVPERSCOM (PERS-8354)?
13. Under certain circumstances, a member may request determination of entitlement to an additional what percentage increase of retainer pay due to the performance of extraordinary heroism?
14. A member requesting determination of extraordinary heroism must also include copies of citation, write-up, and what else (if available) as enclosures to the request?
15. Once request for transfer to the Fleet Reserve has been approved by detailer, rating assignment officer, and enlisted community manager, NAVPERSCOM (PERS-8354) will transmit what?
16. NAVPERSCOM (PERS-8354) will issue the Final Authorization/Statement of Service message no later than how long prior to the Fleet Reserve transfer date?
17. Endorsement is to be issued with accounting data no earlier than how long prior to the Fleet Reserve date without approval from NAVPERSCOM (PERS-835) per MILPERSMAN 1800-020?
18. Prepare DD 214 and Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, then forward with transfer authorization and First Endorsement to appropriate disbursing office no later than how long prior to member’s departure from command?
19. In time of peace, Fleet Reservists may be required to perform not more than what amount of active service in each 4-year period?
20. Fleet Reservists may wear their uniform from place of release to home within how long after date of release and subsequently on occasions of ceremony?
1. Separation of up to how many days prior to the members EAOS is authorized if the member is serving outside CONUS or the member is resident of a state, territory, or possession outside CONUS and is serving outside the member’s state, territory, or possession of residence?
2. A member is eligible for a characterization of service as General (Under Honorable Conditions), if during the current enlistment, the member’s final evaluation average is what or below?
Commanding Officer (CO), Navy Recruit Training Command (NAVCRUITRACOM) serves as what for recruit personnel?
2. NAVPERSCOM, Enlisted Distribution Division (PERS-40) can direct separation processing under what article for any member who is not worldwide assignable due to a medical condition?
3. Per what, if an administrative board is required prior to a separation determination, the administrative board may not disregard or change the approved diagnosis of a medical officer?
What may be effected by the separation authority (SA) provided the member has been properly given notice of the administrative separation (ADSEP) action?
2. To be awarded a discharge in “absentia” the member must be in an Unauthorized Absence (UA) status or in what?
3. UA in excess of how many days is a serious offense and reprocessing for an OTH is appropriate?
Eligibility criteria for full separation pay is the Service member is on active duty and has completed at least how many, but less than 20, years of active service immediately before separation in addition to other requirements?
2. For the purpose of entitlement to separation pay, a period of active duty is continuous if it is not interrupted by a break in service of more than how many days?
3. As a condition of eligibility for separation pay, Service members must enter into a written agreement to serve how long in the Ready Reserve?
4. Service members “not retention eligible” are entitled to what type of separation pay, providing they otherwise meet the eligibility requirements?
5. Who may award full separation pay to a Service member who would otherwise be eligible for half pay?
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
1. The (NJP) authority who imposed punishment, their successor in command, or a receiving NJP authority over the person punished may set aside punishment if the punishment resulted in a clear injustice and, absent unusual circumstances, was awarded within what time frame?
2. What means that there exists an unwaived legal or factual error that clearly and affirmatively injures the substantial rights of the servicemember?
3. To process set aside of an NJP in whole or in part, the NJP authority shall prepare and personally sign (not “by direction”) a what?
Letter of Notification (LON)
4. For records or documents which may not be corrected by set aside action, servicemember should be advised to petition what for additional corrective action?
5. What is a reduction in either the quantity or quality of a punishment, its general nature remaining the same?
6. Reduction in paygrade may be mitigated to forfeiture of pay only within how many months after date of execution and forfeitures may not exceed the total amount of forfeitures that could have been awarded at NJP?
7. See what for procedures regarding advancement after reduction in rate? |
A member serving outside conus may be separated what minimum number of days prior to their eaos
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